Paper 1 Reading: Overview

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Paper 1 Overview

Paper 1 is the compulsory paper for Cambridge IGCSE First Language English.
The exam is 2 hours long and worth 80 marks.
You must answer four compulsory questions, though Questions 1, 2 and 3 are divided into sub-questions.
You will receive an insert containing three texts on a similar topic, plus a question paper and answer booklet.
Marks are split into reading (65 marks) and writing (15 marks).
Dictionaries may not be used in this exam.

Recommended Timing

Cambridge recommends spending 15 minutes reading the three texts before answering.
Suggested timing: Question 1 – 20 minutes, Question 2 – 25 minutes, Question 3 – 25–30 minutes, Question 4 – 30–35 minutes.
Each question is worth 20 marks, so allocate time roughly in proportion to the marks and complexity.

Question 1: Comprehension

This question requires you to respond to Text A.
You will answer a series of short-answer sub-questions (1a–1f).
It is worth 20 marks and tests understanding of both explicit and implicit meanings.
You need to select and use information for specific purposes.
Answers should be concise and directly relevant to each sub-question.

Question 2: Summary and Short Answer

This question requires you to respond to Text B.
Question 2(a) is a selective summary task in your own words, no more than 120 words.
It is worth 15 marks (10 reading, 5 writing).
Question 2(b) is a short-answer question testing understanding of attitudes and opinions, worth 5 marks.
For 2(a), you must select relevant information and express it in continuous writing.
For 2(b), you need to infer implicit meanings and attitudes from Text B.

Question 3: Short-Answer Questions and Language Task

This question requires you to respond to Text C.
Questions 3(a–c) are short-answer questions worth 10 marks in total.
Question 3(d) is a language task where you write about 200–250 words, worth 10 marks.
Both parts test understanding of explicit and implicit meanings and how writers achieve effects.
For the language task, you must analyse the writer’s language choices and their effects on the reader.

Question 4: Extended Response to Reading

This question requires you to respond to Text C.
You must write about 250–300 words in one of these text types: letter, report, journal, speech, interview or article.
It is worth 20 marks (10 reading, 10 writing).
You need to analyse, evaluate and develop facts, ideas and opinions from the text.
You must select and use information for a specific purpose and audience.
Your writing will be assessed on organisation, vocabulary, sentence structures and register.

Assessment Objectives: Reading (AO1)

R1: Demonstrate understanding of explicit meanings – show you understand obvious meanings in a text.
R2: Demonstrate understanding of implicit meanings and attitudes – recognise hints, suggestions and the writer’s hidden attitudes.
R3: Analyse, evaluate and develop facts, ideas and opinions, using appropriate support from the text – explain and develop ideas, using quotations or references.
R4: Demonstrate understanding of how writers achieve effects and influence readers – consider deliberate language choices and their impact.
R5: Select and use information for specific purposes – choose relevant information to answer different questions.

Assessment Objectives: Writing (AO2)

W1: Articulate experience and express what is thought, felt and imagined – write convincingly to convey real or imagined experience.
W2: Organise and structure ideas and opinions for deliberate effect – sequence and connect ideas to interest and influence the reader.
W3: Use a range of vocabulary and sentence structures appropriate to context – vary vocabulary and sentence structures deliberately.
W4: Use register appropriate to context – adapt your writing to suit purpose, audience and form.
W5: Make accurate use of spelling, punctuation and grammar – write accurately, avoiding errors.

Skills Assessed in Paper 1

Paper 1 primarily assesses reading skills (65 marks) with a smaller focus on writing skills (15 marks).
The reading assessment objectives (R1–R5) are tested across all four questions.
The writing assessment objectives (W1–W3) are tested in Question 2(a) and Question 4.
You need to demonstrate a range of reading skills: comprehension, summary, language analysis and extended response.
Each question targets specific assessment objectives, so tailor your approach accordingly.

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1.How long is the Paper 1 Reading exam?
Easy
- A1 hour 30 minutes
- B2 hours
- C2 hours 30 minutes
- D3 hours
2.How many compulsory questions must you answer on Paper 1?
Easy
- ATwo
- BThree
- CFour
- DFive
3.Paper 1 is worth a total of 80 marks.
Easy
True or false?
4.On Paper 1, how many of the 80 marks are awarded for reading and how many for writing?
Easy
- AReading = 65, Writing = 15
- BReading = 15, Writing = 65
- CReading = 40, Writing = 40
- DReading = 50, Writing = 30
5.Approximately how many words in total do the three texts on Paper 1 contain?
Easy
- A550–650 words
- B700–900 words
- C1000–1200 words
- D1400 words
6.Which question requires you to write 200–250 words analysing language?
Medium
- AQuestion 1
- BQuestion 2(a)
- CQuestion 3(d)
- DQuestion 4
7.Which text types are permitted for Question 4?
Medium
- ALetter, report, journal, speech, interview, article
- BLetter, email, blog, diary, review, essay
- CReport, essay, poem, script, leaflet, guide
- DSpeech, article, story, letter, review, journal
8.Which of the following are reading assessment sub-objectives for this IGCSE? (select all that apply)
Medium
- AR1: demonstrate understanding of explicit meanings
- BR3: analyse, evaluate and develop facts, ideas and opinions, using appropriate support from the text
- CR4: demonstrate understanding of how writers achieve effects and influence readers
- DW5: make accurate use of spelling, punctuation and grammar
- ER6: translate information into a different form

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9.Match each Paper 1 question to what it requires.
Medium
- Question 1
- Question 2(a)
- Question 3(a-c)
- Question 4
- Comprehension short answers on Text A
- Summary of no more than 120 words based on Text B
- Explaining language used in Text C
- Extended response of 250–300 words in a given text type
10.Which assessment objective covers showing that you understand how a writer has influenced their reader through language choices?
Medium
- AR1
- BR2
- CR3
- DR4
11.Match each Paper 1 question to the text it is based on.
Medium
- Question 1
- Question 2
- Question 3
- Question 4
- Text A
- Text B
- Text C
12.Place the following Paper 1 questions in the order they appear on the exam paper.
Medium
- Question 1
- Question 2
- Question 3
- Question 4
13.Which of the following best describes the relationship between the two assessment objectives for this IGCSE?
Medium
- AAO1 is worth 50% and AO2 is worth 50% of the overall grade
- BAO1 is worth 65% and AO2 is worth 35% of the overall grade
- CAO1 is worth 80% and AO2 is worth 20% of the overall grade
- DAO1 is worth 35% and AO2 is worth 65% of the overall grade
14.Which sub-objective requires you to show that you can recognise hints and suggestions in a text?
Medium
- AR1
- BR2
- CR3
- DR4
15.Which sub-objective requires you to consider the deliberate choices a writer has made and why they have made those choices?
Medium
- AR2
- BR3
- CR4
- DR5
16.Which of the following sub-objectives are tested in Question 2(a)? (select all that apply)
Medium
- AR1
- BR2
- CR3
- DR4
- ER5
17.Which of the following sub-objectives are tested in Question 4? (select all that apply)
Medium
- AR1
- BR2
- CR3
- DR4
- ER5
18.Which of the following sub-objectives are tested in Question 3? (select all that apply)
Medium
- AR1
- BR2
- CR3
- DR4
- ER5
19.Paper 1 is the compulsory paper for the Cambridge IGCSE First Language English course.
Easy
True or false?
20.Dictionaries may be used in the Paper 1 exam.
Easy
True or false?
21.The three texts on Paper 1 will all be on a similar topic.
Easy
True or false?
22.On Paper 1, candidates write their answers in a separate answer booklet rather than on the question paper.
Easy
True or false?
23.Which sentence uses punctuation correctly?
Easy
- AThe insert contains three texts: all on a similar topic.
- BThe insert contains three texts; all on a similar topic.
- CThe insert contains three texts, all on a similar topic.
- DThe insert contains three texts all on a similar topic.
24.Choose the most precise word to complete the sentence: The writer's choice of the verb 'slithered' ___ a sense of menace in the description.
Medium
- Aeffects
- Baffects
- Cconveys
- Dinfects
25.Read this sentence from a student's answer: 'The writer uses the word 'shattered' to show how the character's hopes have been destroyed, this creates a sense of despair.' Which version corrects the punctuation error?
Medium
- AThe writer uses the word 'shattered' to show how the character's hopes have been destroyed; this creates a sense of despair.
- BThe writer uses the word 'shattered' to show how the character's hopes have been destroyed, this creates a sense of despair.
- CThe writer uses the word 'shattered' to show how the character's hopes have been destroyed. This creates a sense of despair.
- DBoth A and C are correct.
26.In the sentence 'The writer's use of short, abrupt sentences creates a tense atmosphere,' what is the grammatical function of the word 'abrupt'?
Medium
- AIt is a noun modifying 'sentences'.
- BIt is an adjective modifying 'sentences'.
- CIt is an adverb modifying 'creates'.
- DIt is a verb describing the sentences' action.
27.Which sentence correctly uses a semicolon?
Medium
- AThe writer uses imagery; to create a vivid picture.
- BThe writer uses imagery; the reader can picture the scene clearly.
- CThe writer uses imagery; and the reader can picture the scene clearly.
- DThe writer uses imagery; which helps the reader picture the scene.
28.Which of the following sentences contain a grammatical error? (select all that apply)
Hard
- AThe writer's use of repetition creates a sense of urgency.
- BThe writer use repetition to create a sense of urgency.
- CThe writer's use of repetition create a sense of urgency.
- DThe writer uses repetition to create a sense of urgency.
- EThe writer's use of repetition creating a sense of urgency.
29.A semicolon can be used to join two independent clauses that are closely related in meaning.
Easy
True or false?
30.Match each punctuation mark to its correct use in an analytical sentence.
Medium
- Colon
- Semicolon
- Comma
- Introduces a list or explanation
- Joins two closely related independent clauses
- Separates items in a list or marks a pause
31.Place the following parts of a sentence in the correct order to form a grammatically accurate analytical statement.
Medium
- The writer's use of metaphor
- creates
- a vivid image
- in the reader's mind.
32.Read this sentence: 'The wind clawed at the tents all night, and by morning the camp was a wreck of twisted poles.' What does the word 'clawed' most strongly suggest about the wind?
Medium
- AIt was gentle but persistent
- BIt was violent and aggressive
- CIt was warm and comforting
- DIt was steady and predictable
33.Read this sentence: 'She read the letter twice, folded it neatly, and placed it in the drawer without a word.' What is implied about her feelings?
Medium
- AShe was delighted by the news
- BShe was hiding a strong emotional reaction
- CShe had not understood the letter
- DShe intended to reply immediately
34.Read this extract: 'The market was a riot of colour. Spices spilled from sacks in gold and rust; silk hung in waterfalls of blue; and everywhere the cries of traders rose and fell like music.' Which technique is used in 'silk hung in waterfalls of blue'?
Medium
- ASimile
- BMetaphor
- CPersonification
- DOnomatopoeia
35.Read this extract: 'The market was a riot of colour. Spices spilled from sacks in gold and rust; silk hung in waterfalls of blue; and everywhere the cries of traders rose and fell like music.' What is the main effect of the list of colours and sounds?
Hard
- AIt suggests the market is quiet and orderly
- BIt creates a vivid, overwhelming sensory impression
- CIt shows the writer dislikes the market
- DIt makes the market seem dangerous
36.Read this extract: 'The old house groaned as the storm pressed against its walls. Inside, a single candle flickered, throwing shadows that seemed to reach for the door.' Which of the following are true of this extract? (select all that apply)
Medium
- AIt uses personification
- BIt creates an ominous atmosphere
- CIt states directly that the house is haunted
- DIt uses a simile
- EIt appeals to the sense of sight
37.In the sentence 'The rain hammered on the roof like a drum', the phrase 'like a drum' is a simile.
Easy
True or false?
38.Match each extract to the reading skill it mainly tests.
Medium
- The sign clearly states that the museum closes at five.
- Her tight smile suggested she disagreed with the plan.
- The writer repeats 'never' to emphasise the speaker's regret.
- Understanding explicit meaning (R1)
- Understanding implicit meaning and attitude (R2)
- Understanding how writers achieve effects (R4)
39.Place the following steps in the order you would use them to answer a short-answer comprehension question on an unseen extract.
Medium
- Read the question carefully to identify exactly what is being asked
- Scan the extract for the relevant section
- Select the precise words or details that answer the question
- Write your answer in your own words where required
40.Read this extract: 'For years the factory had been the heart of the town; now its silent chimneys stood like gravestones.' Which of the following best describes the purpose of the contrast in this sentence?
Medium
- ATo show that the factory was recently built
- BTo emphasise the town's decline and sense of loss
- CTo suggest the factory is still busy
- DTo describe the town's improved appearance
41.What is the maximum number of words allowed for the summary in Question 2(a)?
Easy
42.Complete the definitions of the reading assessment sub-objectives.
Medium
R1 means demonstrating understanding of ____ meanings; R2 means demonstrating understanding of ____ meanings and attitudes.
43.Complete the definition of sub-objective R2.
Easy
R2: demonstrate understanding of ____ meanings and ____.
44.Complete the definition of sub-objective R1.
Easy
R1: demonstrate understanding of ____ meanings.
45.Complete the definition of sub-objective R5.
Easy
R5: select and use information for ____ purposes.
46.Complete the definition of sub-objective R4.
Easy
R4: demonstrate understanding of how writers achieve ____ and ____ readers.
47.Complete the definition of sub-objective R3.
Easy
R3: analyse, evaluate and develop facts, ideas and opinions, using appropriate ____ from the text.
48.Complete the description of the Paper 1 exam.
Medium
The Paper 1 exam is ____ hours long and you will have ____ compulsory questions to answer.
49.Complete the description of the Paper 1 texts.
Medium
You will be given an insert containing the ____ texts you will use to answer the questions; all three texts will be on a ____ topic.
50.Complete the description of the Paper 1 marks.
Easy
The exam is worth ____ marks; total marks for reading = ____ and total marks for writing = ____.
51.Which sub-objective requires you to use supporting evidence from the text, such as quotations or references?
Medium
52.Which sub-objective covers varying your writing to suit the purpose, audience and form of the task?
Medium
53.Explain what is meant by 'select and use information for specific purposes' (R5).
Hard
54.Explain what is meant by 'analyse, evaluate and develop facts, ideas and opinions, using appropriate support from the text' (R3).
Hard
55.Explain what is meant by 'demonstrate understanding of how writers achieve effects and influence readers' (R4).
Hard
56.Explain what is meant by 'articulate experience and express what is thought, felt and imagined' (W1).
Medium
57.Explain how a writer's choice of a single verb can influence a reader's understanding of a character's attitude.
Hard

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## Paper 1 Reading: Overview **Paper 1 is compulsory** for Cambridge IGCSE First Language English. For the rest of the course you either sit Paper 2 or complete a coursework portfolio. ### Exam facts - **2 hours**, **80 marks**, **four compulsory questions** (Questions 1, 2 and 3 are split into sub-questions). - You get a question paper, an answer booklet and an **insert containing three texts on a similar topic**. - **Total marks for reading = 65; total marks for writing = 15.** - Cambridge recommends **15 minutes reading the texts**. ### Suggested timings | Section | Marks | Timing | |---|---|---| | Reading | N/A | 15 minutes | | Q1 short-answer | 20 | 20 minutes | | Q2 summary and short-answer | 20 | 25 minutes | | Q3 short-answer and language task | 20 | 25–30 minutes | | Q4 extended response to reading | 20 | 30–35 minutes | ### Question breakdown - **Q1(a–f) Comprehension** — short answers on **Text A**. 20 marks. - **Q2(a) Summary** — no more than **120 words**, based on **Text B**. 15 marks (reading = 10, writing = 5). - **Q2(b) Short-answer** — details from **Text B**. 5 marks. - **Q3(a–c) Language** — explain language used in **Text C**. 10 marks. - **Q3(d) Language** — analyse language used in **Text C**, in **200–250 words**. 10 marks. - **Q4 Extended response** — about **250–300 words** in one of these text types: **letter, report, journal, speech, interview, article**, in response to **Text C**. 20 marks (reading = 10, writing = 10). ### Skills assessed There are **only two assessment objectives**, each worth **50% of your overall grade**, divided into sub-objectives. **AO1: read and respond in different ways to different types of text** - **R1** — demonstrate understanding of explicit meanings: show you understand the obvious meanings communicated in a text. - **R2** — demonstrate understanding of implicit meanings and attitudes: recognise hints and suggestions to understand the more hidden meanings and attitudes of the writer. - **R3** — analyse, evaluate and develop facts, ideas and opinions, using appropriate support from the text: use, explain and develop what you read, referring to supporting evidence such as quotations or references. - **R4** — demonstrate understanding of how writers achieve effects and influence readers: consider the deliberate choices a writer has made and why. - **R5** — select and use information for specific purposes: choose relevant and appropriate information to answer different questions. **AO2: write accurately and effectively, using Standard English appropriately** - **W1** — articulate experience and express what is thought, felt and imagined. - **W2** — organise and structure ideas and opinions for deliberate effect. - **W3** — use a range of vocabulary and sentence structures appropriate to context. - **W4** — use register appropriate to context: vary your writing to suit purpose, audience and form. - **W5** — make accurate use of spelling, punctuation and grammar. **Exam tip:** know which question tests which skill, and watch the clock — Q4 carries the most writing marks, so protect time for it.

Paper 1: The compulsory paper for Cambridge IGCSE First Language English: 2 hours, 80 marks, four compulsory questions on three texts on a similar topic.
Insert: The separate booklet given with the question paper containing the three texts used to answer the questions.
Reading marks: Total marks for reading on Paper 1 = 65.
Writing marks: Total marks for writing on Paper 1 = 15.
Question 1: Comprehension: a series of short answers on Text A, worth 20 marks.
Question 2(a): Summary of no more than 120 words based on Text B, worth 15 marks (reading = 10, writing = 5).
Question 2(b): Short-answer question using details from Text B, worth 5 marks.
Question 3(a–c): Language questions explaining language used in Text C, worth 10 marks.
Question 3(d): Language analysis of Text C in 200–250 words, worth 10 marks.
Question 4: Extended response to reading, about 250–300 words in one of these text types: letter, report, journal, speech, interview, article, in response to Text C. Worth 20 marks (reading = 10, writing = 10).
AO1: Read and respond in different ways to different types of text (sub-objectives R1–R5).
AO2: Write accurately and effectively, using Standard English appropriately (sub-objectives W1–W5).
R1: Demonstrate understanding of explicit meanings: show that you understand the obvious meanings communicated in a text.
R2: Demonstrate understanding of implicit meanings and attitudes: recognise hints and suggestions to understand the more hidden meanings and attitudes of the writer.
R3: Analyse, evaluate and develop facts, ideas and opinions, using appropriate support from the text, such as quotations or references.
R4: Demonstrate understanding of how writers achieve effects and influence readers: consider the deliberate choices a writer has made and why.
R5: Select and use information for specific purposes: select relevant and appropriate information from a text to answer different questions.
W1: Articulate experience and express what is thought, felt and imagined: write convincingly to convey real and imagined experience, thoughts and feelings.
W2: Organise and structure ideas and opinions for deliberate effect: sequence and connect ideas effectively to interest and influence your reader.
W3: Use a range of vocabulary and sentence structures appropriate to context, deliberately, to achieve certain effects.
W4: Use register appropriate to context: vary your writing to suit the purpose, audience and form of the task.
W5: Make accurate use of spelling, punctuation and grammar, avoiding errors.

Thẻ ghi nhớ

What is the duration of the IGCSE English Language Paper 1 exam?

The exam is 2 hours long.

How many compulsory questions are on Paper 1?

There are four compulsory questions, although questions 1, 2 and 3 are further divided into sub-questions.

What is the total mark for Paper 1?

Paper 1 is worth 80 marks.

How are the 80 marks on Paper 1 divided between reading and writing?

65 marks are for reading and 15 marks are for writing.

What additional material is provided with the Paper 1 question paper?

An insert containing the three texts you will use to answer the questions.

What is the relationship between the three texts in Paper 1?

All three texts will be on a similar topic.

How long does Cambridge recommend you spend reading the texts in Paper 1?

15 minutes.

What is the suggested timing for Question 1 in Paper 1?

20 minutes.

What is the suggested timing for Question 2 in Paper 1?

25 minutes.

What is the suggested timing for Question 3 in Paper 1?

25−30 minutes.

What is the suggested timing for Question 4 in Paper 1?

30−35 minutes.

What is the format of Question 1 on Paper 1?

A series of short-answer comprehension questions on Text A, worth 20 marks.

What does Question 2(a) require you to do?

Write a summary of no more than 120 words based on Text B.

How many marks is Question 2(a) worth, and how are they divided?

15 marks in total: 10 for reading and 5 for writing.

What does Question 2(b) require you to do?

Give a short answer using details from Text B, worth 5 marks.

What does Question 3(a-c) require you to do?

Explain language used in Text C, worth 10 marks.

What does Question 3(d) require you to do?

Analyse language used in Text C in 200−250 words, worth 10 marks.

What does Question 4 require you to do?

Write about 250−300 words in one of the following text types: letter, report, journal, speech, interview or article, in response to Text C.

How many marks is Question 4 worth, and how are they divided?

20 marks in total: 10 for reading and 10 for writing.

What are the two main assessment objectives for IGCSE English Language?

AO1: read and respond in different ways to different types of text; AO2: write accurately and effectively, using Standard English appropriately.

What does assessment objective R1 require you to do?

Demonstrate understanding of explicit meanings — show that you understand the obvious meanings communicated in a text.

What does assessment objective R2 require you to do?

Demonstrate understanding of implicit meanings and attitudes — show that you can recognise hints and suggestions in a text to understand the more hidden meanings and attitudes of the writer.

What does assessment objective R3 require you to do?

Analyse, evaluate and develop facts, ideas and opinions, using appropriate support from the text — evaluate and analyse what you read by using, explaining and developing them, and refer to supporting evidence such as quotations or references.

What does assessment objective R4 require you to do?

Demonstrate understanding of how writers achieve effects and influence readers — show that you understand how a writer has influenced their reader through their use of language, and consider the deliberate choices a writer has made and why.

What does assessment objective R5 require you to do?

Select and use information for specific purposes — select and use relevant and appropriate information from a text to answer the different questions.

What does assessment objective W1 require you to do?

Articulate experience and express what is thought, felt and imagined — write convincingly to convey real and imagined experience, thoughts and feelings.

What does assessment objective W2 require you to do?

Organise and structure ideas and opinions for deliberate effect — sequence and connect the ideas and opinions effectively within your written response to interest and influence your reader.

What does assessment objective W3 require you to do?

Use a range of vocabulary and sentence structures appropriate to context — use a range of appropriate vocabulary and sentence structures deliberately within each written response to achieve certain effects.

What does assessment objective W4 require you to do?

Use register appropriate to context — vary your writing to suit the purpose, audience and form of the task.

What does assessment objective W5 require you to do?

Make accurate use of spelling, punctuation and grammar — write accurately, avoiding spelling, punctuation and grammar errors.

Which questions on Paper 1 assess writing skills?

Question 2(a) (5 marks for writing) and Question 4 (10 marks for writing).

Which questions on Paper 1 assess reading skills?

All four questions assess reading: Question 1 (20 marks), Question 2(a) (10 marks), Question 2(b) (5 marks), Question 3 (20 marks), and Question 4 (10 marks).

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