Paper 2 Directed Writing and Composition: Overview

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Paper 2: Overview

Paper 2 is the optional second exam paper for Cambridge IGCSE First Language English.
Paper 1 is compulsory; you either take Paper 2 or complete a coursework portfolio.
The exam is 2 hours long and worth 80 marks.
You must answer Question 1 and one question from Section B.
Both sections are worth 40 marks, so divide your time equally.
You will be given an insert containing one or two texts.
Total marks for writing = 65; total marks for reading = 15.

Section A: Directed Writing (40 marks)

This section is compulsory and based on the reading texts in the insert.
It is divided into two parts: Question 1(a) and Question 1(b).
Question 1(a) is a short-answer task worth 5 marks.
Question 1(b) is a directed writing task worth 35 marks (10 reading, 25 writing).
For 1(b), you write a discursive, argumentative or persuasive response based on the texts.
The word count for 1(b) is 250–350 words.
Formats for 1(b) are: speech, letter, article or report.
You must evaluate and develop information from the texts, using an appropriate voice and register.

Section B: Composition (40 marks)

You choose one question from a list of four.
There are no reading texts for this section; it tests creative writing.
Two questions are descriptive (Questions 2 or 3).
Two questions are narrative (Questions 4 or 5).
Descriptive tasks ask you to describe a scene, atmosphere or object, using sensory details and imagery.
Narrative tasks ask you to write a story based on a title or an opening sentence, focusing on plot, characterisation, structure and setting.
Recommended word limit for both is 350–450 words.
Each composition is worth 40 marks: 16 for content and structure, 24 for style and accuracy.

What Skills Are Assessed

The exam assesses two main Assessment Objectives: AO2 Writing and AO1 Reading.
Because Paper 2 is primarily a writing exam, the majority of marks come from AO2 Writing (65 marks).
AO1 Reading (15 marks) is tested in Section A only.
AO2 requires you to write accurately and effectively, using Standard English appropriately.
AO1 requires you to read and respond in different ways to different types of text.

AO2: Writing (65 marks)

W1: Articulate experience and express what is thought, felt and imagined — write convincingly to convey real and imagined experiences, thoughts and feelings.
W2: Organise and structure ideas and opinions for deliberate effect — sequence and connect ideas effectively to interest and influence your reader.
W3: Use a range of vocabulary and sentence structures appropriate to context — use a range deliberately to achieve certain effects.
W4: Use register appropriate to context — vary your writing to suit the purpose, audience and form of the task.
W5: Make accurate use of spelling, punctuation and grammar — write accurately, avoiding errors.

AO1: Reading (15 marks)

R1: Demonstrate understanding of explicit meanings — show you understand the obvious meanings communicated in a text. Tested in Question 1(b).
R2: Demonstrate understanding of implicit meanings and attitudes — recognise hints and suggestions to understand hidden meanings and the writer's attitudes. Tested in Question 1(b).
R3: Analyse, evaluate and develop facts, ideas and opinions, using appropriate support from the text — refer to supporting evidence such as quotations or references. Tested in Questions 1(a) and 1(b).
R4: Demonstrate understanding of how writers achieve effects and influence readers — consider the deliberate choices a writer has made and why. Tested in Question 1(a).
R5: Select and use information for specific purposes — select relevant and appropriate information from a text to answer different questions. Tested in Question 1(b).

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1.How long is the Paper 2 exam?
Easy
- A1 hour
- B1 hour 30 minutes
- C2 hours
- D2 hours 30 minutes
2.How many marks is Paper 2 worth in total?
Easy
- A40
- B65
- C80
- D100
3.In Paper 2, how many marks are awarded for reading?
Easy
- A5
- B10
- C15
- D25
4.Which section of Paper 2 is compulsory?
Easy
- ASection A: Directed Writing
- BSection B: Composition
- CBoth sections
- DNeither section
5.In Question 1(b), what is the recommended word count for your response?
Medium
- A150–250 words
- B250–350 words
- C350–450 words
- D500–600 words
6.Which of the following is NOT one of the formats listed for Question 1(b)?
Medium
- Aspeech
- Bletter
- Carticle
- Dpoem
7.In Section B, how many questions do you choose from?
Medium
- AOne from two
- BOne from three
- COne from four
- DOne from five
8.Question 1(a) is a short-answer question that asks you to evaluate a writer's or character's attitude. How many marks is it worth?
Medium
- A5
- B10
- C25
- D35

Plus de questions

9.In Section B, the 40 marks are divided between content and structure, and style and accuracy. How many marks are awarded for style and accuracy?
Medium
- A16
- B20
- C24
- D40
10.Which reading assessment objective is tested in Question 1(a) but NOT in Question 1(b)?
Medium
- AR1
- BR2
- CR4
- DR5
11.In Question 1(b), how many marks are awarded for reading and how many for writing?
Medium
- A5 reading, 30 writing
- B10 reading, 25 writing
- C15 reading, 20 writing
- D20 reading, 15 writing
12.Which of the following is NOT one of the assessment objectives for Paper 2?
Medium
- AW1: articulate experience and express what is thought, felt and imagined
- BW2: organise and structure ideas and opinions for deliberate effect
- CW3: use a range of vocabulary and sentence structures appropriate to context
- DW4: use register appropriate to context
- EW5: make accurate use of spelling, punctuation and grammar
13.In Question 1(b), you must evaluate and develop the information from the texts. Which of the following must you do in this response? (select all that apply)
Easy
- Awrite in an appropriate voice and register
- Bwrite about 250-350 words
- Cuse the format of a speech, letter, article or report
- Danalyse how the writer uses language to influence the reader
- Ewrite a narrative story with a clear plot and setting
14.Which of the following are assessed in Section B: Composition? (select all that apply)
Medium
- Acontent and structure
- Bstyle and accuracy
- Creading for explicit meanings
- Dreading for implicit meanings and attitudes
- Eselecting information for specific purposes
15.Match each assessment sub-objective from Paper 2 to the description of what it means.
Medium
- W1: articulate experience and express what is thought, felt and imagined
- W2: organise and structure ideas and opinions for deliberate effect
- W4: use register appropriate to context
- R4: demonstrate understanding of how writers achieve effects and influence readers
- Write convincingly to convey real and imagined experiences, thoughts and feelings
- Sequence and connect ideas and opinions effectively within your written response
- Vary your writing to suit the purpose, audience and form of the task
- Show that you understand how a writer has influenced their reader through their use of language
16.Match each reading assessment objective to the question or questions in which it is tested.
Medium
- R1: demonstrate understanding of explicit meanings
- R3: analyse, evaluate and develop facts, ideas and opinions
- R4: demonstrate understanding of how writers achieve effects and influence readers
- R5: select and use information for specific purposes
- Question 1(b) only
- Questions 1(a) and 1(b)
- Question 1(a) only
17.Place the following stages of the Paper 2 exam in the order in which you would normally complete them.
Medium
- Read the text(s) in the insert
- Answer Question 1(a)
- Answer Question 1(b)
- Answer one Section B composition
18.Order these Paper 2 requirements from the shortest piece of writing to the longest.
Medium
- Question 1(a) short answer
- Question 1(b) directed writing
- Section B composition
19.In Question 1(a), what must you use your own words to do?
Medium
- Aevaluate the writer's or character's attitude, and provide details from the text to justify your answer
- Bsummarise the whole text in no more than 120 words
- Cdescribe a scene using sensory details and imagery
- Dwrite a persuasive letter to the editor of a newspaper
20.Which assessment objective is tested in Question 1(a) but NOT in Question 1(b)?
Medium
- AR4: demonstrate understanding of how writers achieve effects and influence readers
- BR1: demonstrate understanding of explicit meanings
- CR2: demonstrate understanding of implicit meanings and attitudes
- DR5: select and use information for specific purposes
21.In Question 1(b), the reading marks and the writing marks add up to 35.
Easy
True or false?
22.In Section B, the 40 marks are divided equally between content and structure on the one hand and style and accuracy on the other.
Easy
True or false?
23.A candidate writes: 'The writer's attitude towards the new housing development is one of anger and frustration.' Which of the following is the best reason for using the possessive apostrophe in 'writer's'?
Medium
- AIt shows that the attitude belongs to the writer.
- BIt shows that the word is a plural.
- CIt shows that the writer is a proper noun.
- DIt shows that a letter has been omitted.
24.In an article for Question 1(b), a candidate writes: 'The council have decided to close the park, which has caused outrage among local residents.' Which of the following is the most appropriate correction if the council is being treated as a single body?
Medium
- AThe council has decided to close the park, which has caused outrage among local residents.
- BThe council have decided to close the park, that has caused outrage among local residents.
- CThe council have decided to close the park; which has caused outrage among local residents.
- DThe council have decided to close the park which has caused outrage among local residents.
25.A candidate writes: 'The writer uses the word 'clinging' to describe the fog, which creates a sense of the fog being alive and threatening.' Which of the following best explains the effect of the word 'clinging'?
Medium
- AIt suggests the fog is holding on tightly, making it seem alive and menacing.
- BIt suggests the fog is moving quickly, making it seem energetic.
- CIt suggests the fog is light and harmless, making it seem pleasant.
- DIt suggests the fog is noisy, making it seem disruptive.
26.Which of the following sentences use punctuation correctly? (select all that apply)
Medium
- AThe writer's use of the word 'clinging' creates a vivid image.
- BThe writer uses the word 'clinging' to describe the fog, it makes the fog seem alive.
- CThe writer uses the word 'clinging' to describe the fog; this makes the fog seem alive.
- DThe writer uses the word 'clinging' to describe the fog, which makes the fog seem alive.
- EThe writer uses the word 'clinging' to describe the fog which makes the fog seem alive.
27.In a formal report, you should avoid contractions such as 'don't' and 'can't'.
Easy
True or false?
28.Match each punctuation mark with its correct use in formal writing.
Medium
- Comma
- Semicolon
- Apostrophe
- Colon
- Separates items in a list or clauses in a sentence
- Joins two closely related independent clauses
- Shows possession or omission of letters
- Introduces a list or explanation
29.Place the following steps in the order you would use them to check the accuracy of a sentence in your directed writing response.
Medium
- Read the sentence aloud to check for clarity.
- Check that the verb agrees with its subject.
- Check that punctuation marks are used correctly.
- Check that words are spelled correctly.
30.Which of the following is the best correction of the second sentence?
Medium
- AMany people are angry; they have signed a petition.
- BMany people are angry, they have signed a petition.
- CMany people are angry they have signed a petition.
- DMany people are angry: they have signed a petition.
31.In the first sentence, 'which' refers to the decision to close the park.
Easy
True or false?
32.Read this sentence from a travel article: 'The market was a riot of colour, with spices piled in pyramids and silks fluttering like flags.' What is the main effect of the phrase 'a riot of colour'?
Medium
- AIt suggests the market was chaotic and violent.
- BIt conveys the vivid, overwhelming abundance of colour in the market.
- CIt implies the market was noisy and crowded.
- DIt shows the writer disliked the market.
33.Read this sentence from a speech: 'We cannot stand by while our libraries close, one by one, like candles being snuffed out.' What does the simile 'like candles being snuffed out' most strongly suggest about the libraries?
Medium
- AThey are being extinguished gradually and with a sense of loss.
- BThey are burning down accidentally.
- CThey are expensive to maintain.
- DThey are no longer needed by the community.
34.Read this extract from a letter to a newspaper: 'The new bypass will slice through our ancient woodland, silencing the birdsong that has welcomed generations of walkers.' Which of the following statements about the writer's use of language are true? (select all that apply)
Hard
- AThe verb 'slice' suggests a violent, surgical cutting of the landscape.
- BThe word 'silencing' implies the loss of something living and precious.
- CThe phrase 'welcomed generations' appeals to a sense of shared history and community.
- DThe writer uses formal statistics to support the argument.
- EThe tone is neutral and objective.
35.In Question 1(a), you are given a short extract from the text and must use your own words to evaluate the writer's or character's attitude, providing details from the text to justify your answer.
Easy
True or false?
36.Read this sentence from an article: 'The council's decision to close the park has left residents feeling abandoned.' Which word best describes the writer's attitude towards the council's decision?
Medium
- ASupportive
- BCritical
- CIndifferent
- DConfused
37.Read this sentence from a report: 'The charity's volunteers worked tirelessly, their efforts a quiet engine driving the whole project forward.' What is the effect of the metaphor 'a quiet engine'?
Medium
- AIt suggests the volunteers were noisy and disruptive.
- BIt emphasises the volunteers' unseen but essential role in powering the project.
- CIt implies the volunteers were mechanical and unfeeling.
- DIt shows the project was likely to fail.
38.Read this extract from a speech: 'Our town is not just a place on a map; it is a living community, and every closed shop is a wound.' Which of the following statements about the writer's use of language are true? (select all that apply)
Hard
- AThe contrast between 'a place on a map' and 'a living community' emphasises the town's human value.
- BThe metaphor 'a wound' suggests that each closure causes pain and damage.
- CThe word 'living' personifies the community, making it seem organic and vulnerable.
- DThe writer uses technical jargon to appeal to experts.
- EThe tone is humorous and light-hearted.
39.Match each reading assessment objective from Paper 2 to the description of what it means.
Medium
- R1
- R2
- R3
- R4
- R5
- Show that you understand the obvious meanings communicated in a text
- Show that you can recognise hints and suggestions to understand hidden meanings and attitudes
- Evaluate and analyse the facts, ideas and opinions you read by using, explaining and developing them
- Show that you understand how a writer has influenced their reader through their use of language
- Select and use relevant and appropriate information from a text to answer different questions
40.In the sentence 'The council have decided to close the park, which has caused outrage among local residents', what is the name of the punctuation mark used before the word 'which'?
Easy
- AA comma
- BA semicolon
- CA colon
- DAn apostrophe
41.Complete the following sentences about Paper 2 using the correct words or figures.
Medium
Paper 2 is worth ____ marks in total. Of these, ____ marks are for writing and ____ marks are for reading.
42.Name the four formats you may be asked to write in for Question 1(b).
Medium
The four formats for Question 1(b) are ____, ____, ____ or ____.
43.Complete the sentence with the correct form of the word in brackets.
Medium
The writer's use of the word 'clinging' is highly ____ (effect). It creates a vivid ____ (imagine) of the fog as a living creature.
44.Complete the sentence with the correct punctuation mark.
Medium
The writer uses the word 'clinging' to describe the fog ____ this makes the fog seem alive and threatening.
45.In the sentence 'The council have decided to close the park, which has caused outrage among local residents.', what is the name of the punctuation mark used before 'which'?
Medium
46.Complete the following sentences about the marks for Section B: Composition using the correct figures. Write one number in each gap.
Medium
Each Section B composition is worth 40 marks. Of these, ____ marks are for content and structure, and ____ marks are for style and accuracy.
47.Complete the following sentence about the reading assessment objectives in Paper 2 using the correct objective codes (for example, R1, R2, R3, R4 or R5). Write one code in each gap. Each code may be used once only.
Medium
In Question 1(b), the reading assessment objectives tested are ____, R2, R3 and ____.
48.Complete the following sentence about which reading assessment objectives are tested in Question 1(a) by writing the correct objective codes in the gaps. Write one code in each gap.
Medium
Question 1(a) tests reading assessment objectives ____ and ____.
49.Complete the following sentence about the formats for Question 1(b) by writing one word in each gap. The four formats are listed in the syllabus.
Easy
For Question 1(b) you may be asked to write a speech, a letter, an ____ or a ____.
50.In Question 1(a), you are given a short extract from the text. What must you use your own words to evaluate? Give the exact term used in the specification.
Medium
51.In Section B: Composition, what are the two types of composition title offered? Give both terms.
Medium
52.In Question 1(a), what must you use your own words to evaluate? Give the exact term used in the specification.
Medium
53.Explain how the assessment objectives for Paper 2 are divided between Section A and Section B, and why the paper is described as primarily a writing exam.
Hard
54.Explain how a writer's choice of words can influence the reader's attitude towards a character. Use an example from your own reading or writing to support your answer.
Hard
55.Explain how the reading assessment objectives are divided between Question 1(a) and Question 1(b) in Section A: Directed Writing.
Hard
56.Explain how the marks for Paper 2 are distributed between reading and writing, and why the paper is described as primarily a writing exam.
Hard
57.Explain how a writer's choice of a single word can influence the reader's attitude towards a character. Use an example from your own reading or writing to support your answer.
Hard

Notes de révision

## Paper 2: Directed Writing and Composition — Overview **What it is:** the optional second exam paper for Cambridge IGCSE First Language English. Paper 1 is compulsory; you then either take Paper 2 or complete a coursework portfolio. **Format:** 2 hours, 80 marks. You answer **Question 1** and **one question from Section B**. Both sections are worth 40 marks, so divide your time equally. You get a question paper, an answer booklet and an insert containing one or two texts. Dictionaries may not be used. **Marks split:** Total marks for writing = 65; total marks for reading = 15. ## Section A: Directed Writing (40 marks) Compulsory, based on the reading texts in the insert. Divided into two parts. - **1(a) — short answer (5 marks):** you are given a short extract from the text. Use your own words to evaluate the writer's or character's attitude, and provide details from the text to justify your answer. Tests R3 and R4. - **1(b) — directed writing (35 marks: reading = 10, writing = 25):** write a discursive, argumentative or persuasive response based on the texts. Word count = 250−350 words. Formats = speech, letter, article or report. Evaluate and develop the information from the texts, writing in an appropriate voice and register. Tests R1, R2, R3, R5 and W1–W5. ## Section B: Composition (40 marks) Choose one question from a list of four. No reading texts — this is a test of your creative writing. Recommended word limit = 350−450 words. Each question is worth 40 marks (16 for content and structure, 24 for style and accuracy). - **Descriptive (Questions 2 or 3):** describe a scene, atmosphere or object. Focus on creating a convincing picture using sensory details and imagery. - **Narrative (Questions 4 or 5):** write a story based on a title or an opening sentence. Focus on plot, characterisation, structure and setting. ## Skills assessed **AO2: Writing (65 marks)** — write accurately and effectively, using Standard English appropriately. - **W1:** articulate experience and express what is thought, felt and imagined. - **W2:** organise and structure ideas and opinions for deliberate effect. - **W3:** use a range of vocabulary and sentence structures appropriate to context. - **W4:** use register appropriate to context. - **W5:** make accurate use of spelling, punctuation and grammar. **AO1: Reading (15 marks)** — tested in Section A only. - **R1:** explicit meanings — tested in 1(b). - **R2:** implicit meanings and attitudes — tested in 1(b). - **R3:** analyse, evaluate and develop facts, ideas and opinions, using appropriate support from the text — tested in 1(a) and 1(b). - **R4:** how writers achieve effects and influence readers — tested in 1(a). - **R5:** select and use information for specific purposes — tested in 1(b). **Exam-night reminders:** answer Question 1 and one Section B question; split time equally; watch the word counts; match form, voice and register to the task.

Paper 2: Directed Writing and Composition: The optional second exam paper for the Cambridge IGCSE First Language English qualification; 2 hours, 80 marks. You answer Question 1 and one question from Section B.
Section A: Directed Writing: The compulsory section (40 marks) based on the reading texts in the insert, divided into Question 1(a) and Question 1(b).
Question 1(a): A short answer question (5 marks) in which you are given a short extract from the text and must use your own words to evaluate the writer's or character's attitude, providing details from the text to justify your answer.
Question 1(b): The directed writing question (35 marks: reading = 10, writing = 25) in which you write a discursive, argumentative or persuasive response based on the texts, in 250−350 words, as a speech, letter, article or report.
Section B: Composition: The section (40 marks) where you choose one question from a list of four — two descriptive and two narrative — and write about 350−450 words of creative writing.
Descriptive writing: Composition questions (2 or 3) asking you to describe a scene, atmosphere or object, focusing on creating a convincing picture using sensory details and imagery.
Narrative writing: Composition questions (4 or 5) asking you to write a story based on a title or an opening sentence, focusing on plot, characterisation, structure and setting.
AO2: Writing: The assessment objective worth 65 marks: write accurately and effectively, using Standard English appropriately. Covers sub-objectives W1–W5.
W1: Articulate experience and express what is thought, felt and imagined — write convincingly to convey real and imagined experiences, thoughts and feelings.
W2: Organise and structure ideas and opinions for deliberate effect — sequence and connect ideas and opinions effectively to interest and influence your reader.
W3: Use a range of vocabulary and sentence structures appropriate to context — use them deliberately to achieve certain effects.
W4: Use register appropriate to context — vary your writing to suit the purpose, audience and form of the task.
W5: Make accurate use of spelling, punctuation and grammar — write accurately, avoiding errors.
AO1: Reading: The assessment objective worth 15 marks, tested in Section A only: read and respond in different ways to different types of text. Covers sub-objectives R1–R5.
R1: Demonstrate understanding of explicit meanings — show that you understand the obvious meanings communicated in a text. Tested in Question 1(b).
R2: Demonstrate understanding of implicit meanings and attitudes — recognise hints and suggestions to understand more hidden meanings and the writer's attitudes. Tested in Question 1(b).
R3: Analyse, evaluate and develop facts, ideas and opinions, using appropriate support from the text — refer to supporting evidence such as quotations or references. Tested in Questions 1(a) and 1(b).
R4: Demonstrate understanding of how writers achieve effects and influence readers — consider the deliberate choices a writer has made and why. Tested in Question 1(a).
R5: Select and use information for specific purposes — select relevant and appropriate information from a text to answer the different questions. Tested in Question 1(b).

Cartes mémo

What is Paper 2 of the Cambridge IGCSE First Language English qualification?

It is the optional second exam paper, titled Directed Writing and Composition. You take either Paper 2 or a coursework portfolio, since Paper 1 is compulsory.

How long is Paper 2 and how many marks is it worth?

It is 2 hours long and worth 80 marks in total.

How are the 80 marks of Paper 2 divided between reading and writing?

65 marks are for writing and 15 marks are for reading.

Which questions must you answer on Paper 2?

You must answer Question 1 (Section A) and one question from Section B.

How should you divide your time between the two sections of Paper 2?

Divide your time equally, because both sections are worth 40 marks each.

What is Section A of Paper 2 called, and is it compulsory?

Section A is Directed Writing. It is compulsory and is based on the reading texts in the insert.

What are the two parts of Question 1 in Section A?

Question 1(a) is a short-answer task worth 5 marks, and Question 1(b) is a directed writing task worth 35 marks.

What does Question 1(a) ask you to do?

Using a short extract from the text, you use your own words to evaluate the writer's or character's attitude, providing details from the text to justify your answer.

What does Question 1(b) ask you to do?

Write a discursive, argumentative or persuasive response based on the texts, evaluating and developing the information in an appropriate voice and register.

What word count and formats apply to Question 1(b)?

You write about 250–350 words, in one of these formats: speech, letter, article or report.

How are the 35 marks of Question 1(b) split?

10 marks are for reading and 25 marks are for writing.

What is Section B of Paper 2 called, and what kind of writing does it test?

Section B is Composition. It is creative writing with no reading texts, and you choose one question from a list of four.

What are the four Section B question types?

Two descriptive titles (Questions 2 or 3) and two narrative titles (Questions 4 or 5).

What does a descriptive Composition question ask you to do?

Describe a scene, atmosphere or object, focusing on creating a convincing picture using sensory details and imagery.

What does a narrative Composition question ask you to do?

Write a story based on a title or an opening sentence, focusing on plot, characterisation, structure and setting.

What is the recommended word limit for Section B Composition?

About 350–450 words.

How are the 40 marks of a Section B Composition question divided?

16 marks are for content and structure, and 24 marks are for style and accuracy.

Which Assessment Objective provides most of the marks on Paper 2, and why?

AO2 Writing, worth 65 marks, because Paper 2 is primarily a writing exam.

What does AO2 (Writing) require overall?

To write accurately and effectively, using Standard English appropriately.

What does W1 mean?

Articulate experience and express what is thought, felt and imagined — writing convincingly to convey real and imagined experiences, thoughts and feelings.

What does W2 mean?

Organise and structure ideas and opinions for deliberate effect — sequencing and connecting them to interest and influence your reader.

What does W3 mean?

Use a range of vocabulary and sentence structures appropriate to context, choosing them deliberately to achieve certain effects.

What does W4 mean?

Use register appropriate to context — varying your writing to suit the purpose, audience and form of the task.

What does W5 mean?

Make accurate use of spelling, punctuation and grammar, avoiding errors.

Where are the AO1 Reading skills tested on Paper 2?

In Section A only, across Questions 1(a) and 1(b).

What does R1 mean, and where is it tested?

Demonstrate understanding of explicit meanings — the obvious meanings communicated in a text. It is tested in Question 1(b).

What does R2 mean, and where is it tested?

Demonstrate understanding of implicit meanings and attitudes — recognising hints and suggestions to grasp hidden meanings and the writer's attitudes. It is tested in Question 1(b).

What does R3 mean, and where is it tested?

Analyse, evaluate and develop facts, ideas and opinions using appropriate support from the text, such as quotations or references. It is tested in Questions 1(a) and 1(b).

What does R4 mean, and where is it tested?

Demonstrate understanding of how writers achieve effects and influence readers, considering their deliberate language choices and why they made them. It is tested in Question 1(a).

What does R5 mean, and where is it tested?

Select and use information for specific purposes — choosing relevant, appropriate information from a text to answer different questions. It is tested in Question 1(b).

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